If you have $10M of non-dividend paying stock, you could conceivably spend $200k per year while having a taxable income of zero and remaining eligible for income-based health insurance subsidies.
I understand that if you have tons of valuable assets, you can get a loan against them for a very favorable rate. but then you have to pay back the loan or at least pay the interest on it. how do you do that without having at least some income or realizing some capital gains?
Eg, suppose you have $10M in assets and borrow $200k against it. Next year it's worth something like $10.7M on average, you get charged something like $8k in interest, and you borrow another $200k to spend. So long as you leave enough of a buffer against volatility and the rate of growth of your assets is high enough, you can just borrow money indefinitely against appreciating assets.
People did this in the run-up to the 2008 housing crisis with homes, too. Take out a loan, cash-out refinance later when it's worth more, end up with a house you've taken more cash out of than put in.
also sorry, didn't realize both of my questions went to the same person.
Ok, it's not a good reason... but face it, taxes are determined by politics, not policy.
It's an empirical measurment rather than a theoretical point.
I don't know if he's right. But, I do think that it's dicey taking conclusions like "corporate tax is a tax on pensions" as fact. Economics is not science. Economic theories that yield these conclusions are not testable. The reason macroeconomics exists as a field is that core theories which seem to work well at the micro level don't seem to make the right predictions at the macro-level.
[0]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Share_repurchase#Tax-efficient...