I wasn't citing the per-capita numbers. Here's total GDP:
China, 2000: 1.2 trillion USD [0]
China, 2017: 12.2 trillion USD [0]
Mexico, 2000: 700 billion USD [1]
Mexico, 2017: 1.15 trillion USD [1]
If GDP is a proxy for wealth, China --over the past ~2 decades-- had way much more potential in investing in foreign real estate. I don't understand why per capita GDP would be more relevant in determining which nation would have more capacity in investing in foreign real estate. That capacity for investment seems independent of how the wealth is divided among a countries citizens.
[0] https://www.google.com/search?q=china+gdp
[1] https://www.google.com/search?q=mexico+gdp