China, 2000: 1.2 trillion USD [0]
China, 2017: 12.2 trillion USD [0]
Mexico, 2000: 700 billion USD [1]
Mexico, 2017: 1.15 trillion USD [1]
If GDP is a proxy for wealth, China --over the past ~2 decades-- had way much more potential in investing in foreign real estate. I don't understand why per capita GDP would be more relevant in determining which nation would have more capacity in investing in foreign real estate. That capacity for investment seems independent of how the wealth is divided among a countries citizens.
The rest of your comment makes sense. But this last part doesn't seem right: if wealth were distributed evenly in China, then there might be no Chinese buyers for US real estate. It's only due to inequality ('how the wealth is divided') that there is a segment who can afford this.
Yup, totally agree with this and the overall point you were making in your comments.