Could someone explain why this part makes sense?

> after the country’s central bank allowed the yuan to fall

They got taxed extra, limiting the economy / exports. This means less interest in investment in their market and currency. That seems like a legitimate reason for the currency to lose its value in relation to the country taxing it.

Why is there an implication that this is "allowed" or a strategic response? Not claiming it isn't, and I see how it benefits China in some ways - I'd just like to understand how it's different from a non-manipulated price drop.