The only explanation there is that I'm talking about "issues involve people who have been and continue to be disadvantaged"
Those rich folks have been "disadvantaged" by being deprived of things they have claims on. Obviously they are already quite advantaged, but you can't deny they have less advantage without the things they're claiming.
So, it only matters that one group has fewer resources therefore they have a moral advantage?
I think you are being flippant and disrespectful by calling me names instead of providing substantial counterpoints.