Firstly, do you have any evidence for the claim that, if a language has a specific term for a concept, speakers of that language understand that concept better than speakers of languages that require more than one term to describe the concept? I am genuinely interested in references to the studies you have read which demonstrate this.

Secondly, you contradict yourself. The following statements are inconsistent:

1. "if language X has a specific term for a situation, then its speakers have captured that situation and understand it better"

2. "I'm not saying that having such a term or having a syntax structured in such a way, makes the Japanese to thing (sic) this or that way, or affects how they think."

Either having a specific term for a concept allows better understanding of it (which obviously "affects how they think") or not.