I'm failing grasp what your point is suppose to be. The original poster lamented that the ending of the line item veto has had a significant impact on Congress's behavior during and after the line item veto. I pointed out that the line item veto only existed for 2 years and only applied to very specific budgetary matters. I maybe mistakenly thought my point would be self-evident, so let me clarify. I believe the OP's idea that the elimination of the line item veto has had a significant impact on the current state of congressional politics is incorrect because the line item veto was not in place or applied generally enough to have ever had much of any impact on congressional politics.
Based upon that clarification is your point still relevant and if so can you explain it?