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I sort-of agree with you, but I was directly responding to the phrase:

>"... they'll never think a failure to meet society's need is a market failure..."

Fair, I didn't actually read that comment that closely.

I was the one who first used the phrase market failure (wrongly, I gather). But the GP only used the idea that a market failed at something: "a failure of the marketplace", which is what my point still stands on.

If they only meant to talk about "market failures" as such, then they are guilty of pedantry

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