if it's not, then would wildly unequal outcomes not imply some races are superior to others? the science indicates that this is not the case so how else can it be explained?
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Hmmm people didn't like this. I will add the statistic I can't get out my head:
Incarceration rates in USA (adult male) per 100k
White - 450
Hispanic - 831
Black - 2306
Asian - 210
I don't think this can be explained as cultural or genetic.
Sowell himself gives the example of West Indian immigrants in New York and how they fare far better than American born blacks even though they live in the same area and cannot be distinguished by sight. (From memory) Coleman Hughes, in critiquing Kendi’s position will contrast Russian whites living in the States with those of French whites in the States that show greater disparities than between whites and blacks as monolithic groups.
> This view commits him to some bizarre conclusions. For example, according to 2017 Census Bureau data, the average Haitian-American earned 68 cents for every dollar earned by the average Nigerian-American. The average French-American earned 70 cents for every dollar earned by the average Russian-American.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_ethnic_groups_in_the_U...
Indian Americans are on the top. Russian Americans are 12th in the list. Dutch Americans are 54th.
Do you think that this is a proof of Indian supremacy and Dutch mediocrity? Or is there a policy that systematically oppresses whites of Dutch ancestry and elevates whites of Russian ancestry?
Obviously none of those is true.
I mean according to racial identity they should have the same end results right?
I'll wait. For the science...
No, it would not. There are more alternatives than "racist policy" and "racial superiority".
Also, we're most likely dealing with continuums between many variables, not discrete buckets.
The geography variable is just one of many that can have a huge impact on outcomes.