The rule on not using the passive voice in journalism is suspended the moment it’s about cops misbehaving.
I still wonder how this happens. The only theory I know of is that if they don't give them positive coverage then they'll never get comment form them again, but is that really sufficient for it to be so universal and why have so few papers gone adversarial on this?
https://www.mcsweeneys.net/articles/an-interactive-guide-to-...