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P = NP only if N is invariant over P and non zero. I don’t get why there’s so much commotion on it

There's $1,000,000 waiting for you [1], if you can prove that.

I think the original poster was trying to make a more sophisticated version of the classic "P=NP iff P=0 or N=1" joke.

It doesn't sound sophisticated as it doesn't take P=N=0 into account for example. Yours is much better :)

I think this thread has room for 512 characters of jokes. So far we can fit both of those meeting that constraint so no need to choose favorites.

My proof is too big for the margins of this window. Guess it's time to get a larger monitor...

True. But also P!=NP if N = (P-1)!