I'm not very well versed in how selling debt works, but the way I assume it works is the following: Say someone still owes me $1M over the next 10 years, but I think that there's now only a 50% chance of the debt being repaid. It would make sense for me to try and sell that debt for at least $500k to get a guaranteed immediate return, right? And then that person could say that they hold $1M dollars, even though it's only worth half that much if they priced the risk into it. I may be misunderstanding things though.