Some of those critiques introduce additional assumptions that Diamond's arguments don't rely on:
"has almost no role for human agency—the ability people have to make decisions and influence outcomes. Europeans become inadvertent, accidental conquerors. Natives succumb passively to their fate."
Assumes a conquest due to technological and other disparities implies a lack of human agency on both sides. Why wouldn't the level of human agency everywhere remain roughly constant pre and post colonization regardless of what happened? The only way I can make sense of this is if the writer assumes 'human agency' is some magical force that can overcome every other factor.
"Diamond's account makes all the factors of European domination a product of a distant and accidental history"
Assumes all 'factors' arose as a result of events in the distant past.
Gunpowder, which was spread from China via the silk road, clearly and immediately was put to use fairly soon after the Spanish got hold of it, within a few generations.
etc.