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> its difficult to say any two people, let alone cultures from different eras, will impart the same meaning to a term

This actually sounds like the exact opposite of Wittgenstein, who argued against the idea of a "private language".

You may be right, I'm no expert on his work. Though one thing I do recall is that he had different professional periods, in which he had very different conceptions, or at least approaches, to philosophy; so perhaps that resolves the discrepancy?

> perhaps that resolves the discrepancy?

No.

How about this: what I claimed has absolutely nothing to do with a private language, but with the changing of the shared meaning of words over time.

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