The not layman’s answer is Noether’s theorem: the invariance of the laws of physics after a rotation of the frame of reference implies conservation of angular momentum.
The not layman’s answer is Noether’s theorem: the invariance of the laws of physics after a rotation of the frame of reference implies conservation of angular momentum.
edit: I accept that the non-layman’s answer may hold, I just find the intuition a bit off.
Also, couldn’t you just as well frame all the linear momentum in terms of angular momentum?
... hm, I guess one question is, how would we describe a world where one is conserved but not the other, and visa versa, So e.g. a physics invariant under rotation around each point but not under translations, or visa versa...
Well, it seems like being invariant under rotation around any point, should maybe imply invariance under translations as well..
But, if we are talking about just rotations around a particular point, then a good example is a model of an atom where we consider the nucleus to be the fixed origin, and with the electrons to just be in a rotationally symmetric potential well, and in that model angular momentum is quite important, while linear momentum isn’t quite so important?