And usually money as the primary problem. Weathering past money problems also only seems to be getting worse. (from observing both a lot of people, and a lot of discussion over the subject by professionals).
And usually money as the primary problem. Weathering past money problems also only seems to be getting worse. (from observing both a lot of people, and a lot of discussion over the subject by professionals).
Divorce rates are low in lots of poorer countries, but that doesn't mean the relationships there are perfect. From what I've seen, often the woman would become a pariah and have no real source of livelihood. Divorce isn't even an option, no matter how toxic or abusive their spouse or relationship may be.
It doesn't always show up in the form of divorces. Also, if you're poor enough (say : on disability or welfare) - government rules may make getting married very penalty-high. Or even revealing one has a relationship. (my own Canada has this problem, for instance, as do some states).
As for "rich people" ... there are other factors, and see also "demands of time" not just money. I've met very few rich people who had time that was not in constant demand.
But then there are more poor people than rich ones.
This breakdown of income levels of the divorced:
https://flowingdata.com/2021/05/04/divorce-rates-and-income
acknowledges that there is less data for those with incomes > $1 million .. but doesn't appear to normalise for the weighting that most people who "XX" for some "XX" will have lower incomes.
I did not meant in absolute numbers. And I stand by that claim.
Also, in the context of this thread, there is no reason to focus on super Uber rich. The money cease to be stressor long before that.
Good for you.
What's your dataset, sample description, and normalisation then?
It is not my fault you don't trust your own link or did not read it. Because that link is about "divorce rate" among "married at least once" subset of population. not about number of divorcees in the whole population.
As it stands, without any clarification on your part, your statement that
"Poor people in fact divorce more then rich ones."
is just as meaningful as
"Poor people in fact breath more then rich ones."
ie. trivially so by weight of numbers.
It's also a great pity you are unwilling or unable to the shortcomings of the graph in the link I provided, which has nothing to do with being restricted the core population of people who at least been married.
What country are you thinking of, what are the definitions of rich and poor that you are thinking of, and what is the distribution of rich V. poor that meets that criteria - these are your starting points against which you can bring in whatever measures of divorce you wish to compare against rich and poor.
This is your claim - expand upon what you mean.