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So it's privatized with statutory exclusivity?

Wow that's... Wow.

I take for granted that private parties are equal under the law.

The person you're talking to is mistaken, the use of Postnord is not defined in law, it's contractual. The Swedish government has a centrally negotiated contract with Postnord to do all of their deliveries, and Transportstyrelsen did not believe they were authorized to break that contract – even with the strike causing Postnord to not live up to their end. It makes sense to me that the court system was needed to decide that the contract in practice is void in situations like this.

Postnord is a 100% government owned company

> Firstly postnord is a (largely government owned) private company, so employees are not state employees. For state employees, employees with sovereignty duties (e.g. police...) typically there are restrictions around strike action.

So the government owns the company, but the employees are not government employees?

Everything I said still stands.

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EDIT: Basic common sense says you can either be considered (1) a government organization with statutory exclusivity and legal responsibility (2) a private organization without statutory exclusivity or legal responsibility.

Sweden is letting Postnord have its cake and eat it too.

Yeah, I think it is whacky too.

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