> No. They weren't even in the same category, even the comparison doesn't make sense.

The comparison does make sense if you interpret the parent’s post simply to state that Babylonian mathematics (in Mesopotamia) were developed (and seemingly stagnated) before Greek mathematics began in earnest. Which seems to be pretty uncontroversial. There are extant clay tablets from 1800 to 1600 BC that would indeed predate the Greek Geometers by a millennia — and that’s if you’re counting Thales as the beginning.

Ie. your parent post is using “ahead of” == “temporally before” not as in “more advanced”.