Hacker News Reader

The English and Elizabeth projected their crimes onto Spain.

Proof is in the pudding where is the percentage of natives highest? Where Spaniards colonized (Mexico, Bolivia, Peru)? Or the Brits (Virginia, Connecticut, all of Canada except Quebec)?

(Disclaimer, I'm... I don't know what I am)

View on HN

Presumably the population density in Mexico, Bolivia and Peru was much higher.

Also Spanish emigration into their colonies was quite low and they were much spread out.

e.g. more English/British people emigrated to the Americas in the 1600s than Spanish despite the fact that they controlled many times less territory.

Spanish empire caused a huge impact in the American continent but even so, the focus on seizing wealth and lands competed with the fact that the Spanish doctrine wanted to extend the Christendom. However anglo-saxos have established a more clear separation between colonizers and native population. I would compare what you mention about Mexico and Bolivia with how the decline of the native population in California accelerated after the independence of Mexico. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Population_of_Native_Californi...

Reply on news.ycombinator.com