I wonder if they would get the same result with that passage with British-English speakers.
I've never read a Dickens novel, but a lot of the context there seems obvious to me.
I've never read a Dickens novel, but a lot of the context there seems obvious to me.
If I were studying Spanish literature I wouldn't dream of not studying Iberian Spanish literature
I guess the big question is where in their study are they? I'm assuming it's perfectly possible to get through high school in the US without ever studying any 19th century UK literature. I certainly got through school in England without studying any US literature at all.
If we're talking students a few weeks into their first term at University then it is not at all surprising that they've never read any literature from England. If on the other hand they're a few weeks from graduating, then it would be much more surprising.