This reasoning is not flowing through for me. It feels like you are saying:
1. There is an off ramp for TRTs but some people have, “true permanently lowered levels of hormones.”
2. For GLP-1s, “there is no off-ramp, but the only effects I’ve noticed are a return to my baseline.”
To clarify my original post, I consider the ability to return to baseline to mean there is an off-ramp and permanently impacted to mean there is no off-ramp.