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Comment by palmotea | Hacker News Reader

> The reality is quite complicated. Canadian English is a version of North American English, with a distinctive pronunciation and sub-dialect, but still has vestiges of British English that are lost in America.

Does Canadian English still use "gotten"? IIRC, that's a vestige of British English that's been lost in Britain.

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New Englander here. Gotten is normal vocabulary. If it's not used in British English, then it's probably a feature of North American English, since most North American linguistic differences are snapshots of common features of 16th-17th century British English that somehow ossified over here.

Edit: It appears my conjecture was correct: https://www.sarahwoodbury.com/on-the-use-of-the-word-gotten/

What I'm most interested is not usage of "gotten", but whether somewhere in the English-speaking world, using "I've" standalone (without a follow-on got, been, had etc) is normal.

I see it from time to time online, and immediately assume they're a non-native speaker who doesn't understand the nonsensical nuances of the language.

Eg people will say something like "I've 3 apples", which is just "I have 3 apples", which is perfectly gramattical. But, for some reason, we use "I've got 3 apples". But I think we'd also say "I have 3 apples" and not "I have got 3 apples".

Language is weird.

The rest of the world doesn't consider 'gotten' a proper word?

Yes (though I feel it's always had an awkward air about its use, and it feels more polite and high class to use received)

I'm from England and I'm pretty sure gotten is a normal word here?

Except ill gotten gains?

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