I disagree that it is different. Not every theoretical harm to property is a violation of consent. In practice, one has to demonstrate harm and be able to assign blame to an entity. In most cases, short term exposure to burning wood won't cause any demonstrable harm. (Just ask the residents of Providence, RI on Saturday nights during the summer.)
Therefore, it's not just that "burning wood" causes harm, but that a certain level of exposure to burning wood causes harm.
You may think me a pedant, but consider the top post in this sub-thread:
> Drinking a warm cup of coffee or hot chocolate next to a wood fire during
> a cold night is possibly one of the most enjoyable and stress reducing
> activities I can think of. Life isn't about evaluating every risk.
Which is clearly talking about recreational wood burning. I would argue that one cannot (typically) demonstrate harm from such an activity, either because the exposure is too short or the blame cannot be laid on any one particular entity.
Therefore, I would say that they are indeed not different at all, at least with regard to a practical implementation of property law. Otherwise, nearly anything could be misconstrued as harm. (e.g., I have dependents and snowboarding could cause me to break my leg and put me out of work, which would cause harm to those relying on me.)