Everybody's assuming that you have to fix the number of coin flips in advance. (This includes my calculation below, which is basically tome's result using a normal approximation to the binomial.) But that was never explicitly stated. You could imagine that you wait until you've got $10 and then walk away; the time until this happens would be shorter. I'd approximate the amount of money you have as a Brownian motion with drift and use that to compute. But I can't do the actual computation right now (I don't have that stuff memorized and don't have the right books where I am).