-6 karma · joined December 1, 2019
At any given time, any given American can likely be prosecuted for a misdemeanor.
The question you are asking is, why are these people prosecuted only after every misdemeanor crime which is prosecuted, and additionally only after those misdemeanor crimes which counterfactually would be prosecuted before this one if more misdemeanor crimes were prosecuted?
The answer is complex.
We’d disagree a lot about what the biggest problem in the story is, though.
Very debatable. If you as a non-LEO attempt to detain someone who you suspect of having committed a crime, and they feel threatened, you could easily end up in jail.
“They did a crime” does not, in fact, give you the right to crime too.
Edit: Can someone help me out? I’ve posted a bunch of controversial opinions in this thread, so why is the one factual claim the thing getting downvoted to oblivion without comment?
Am I somehow wrong about this? Like... can I actually crime someone just because they crimed someone else first and I don’t want them to get away with it?
I need to know this.