802 karma · joined September 16, 2013
[1] https://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=4895486
An important caveat: this article assumes that energy consumption will continue to increase exponentially to get the 1000 year timeline of draining the rotational energy of the Earth.
In this case, how do you separate inflation due to increased demand from inflation due to corporate profits? The two seem inextricably tied to me.
However, by "random data", the original blog means people and their self-assessments are completely independent! In fact, this is exactly what the DK effect is saying -- people are bad at self-evaluating [2]. (More precisely, poor performers overestimate their ability and high performers underestimate their ability.) In other words, the premise of the original blog post [1] is exactly the conclusion of DK!
Looking at the HN comments cited [3] by the current blog post, it appears that the main point of contention from other commenters was whether the DK effect means uncorrelated self-assessment or inversely correlated self-assessment. The DK data only supports the former, not the latter. I haven't looked at the original paper, but according to Wikipedia [2], the only claim being made appears to be the "uncorrelated" claim. (In fact, it is even weaker, since there is a slight positive correlation between performance and self-assessment.)
So, my conclusion would be that DK holds, but it does depend on exactly what is the exact claim in the original DK paper.
[1] https://economicsfromthetopdown.com/2022/04/08/the-dunning-k...
[2] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect
In my view, Turing's contribution is providing a plausible definition of computation along with a deep and comprehensive theoretical characterization of the properties of this model of computation. This is why Turing machines form the basis of theoretical computer science, and not other models such as lambda calculus. I think saying that Turing machines were adopted since they were merely more convenient is highly misleading.
I think this pattern repeats a lot: There are many cases where you can point to multiple people who invented similar ideas around the same time, but it is typically the person who provided the most deep and comprehensive treatment of the subject that ultimately gets most of the credit. This depth is not conveyed in pop science attributions such as "Turing invented computation", but this doesn't mean Turing doesn't deserve the credit.
1) There exists some n such that all integers >= n satisfy the desired property.
2) For n = [a specific constant], all integers >= n satisfy the desired property.
These two statements are not the same, but both imply that there are a finite number of counterexamples. The second one is stronger, since we could prove the statement by enumerating all k < n and checking the statement for each such k; if all these checks pass, then the statement is correct.
This strategy does not work for the first strategy since we do not know n, only that such an n exists. In particular, there could be a non-constructive proof that establishes existence of such an n without providing any way to compute such an n.
From the discussion, it does sound like this paper is proving (2), not (1).
1) There exists some n such that all integers >= n satisfy the desired property.
2) For n = [a specific constant], all integers >= n satisfy the desired property.
I'm not familiar with Artin's conjecture, but from your description, it satisfies (1) but not (2). The reason is that if there are at most 2 such primes, we can take n to be the larger of the two primes plus one. Since all primes are finite, this choice of n is also finite.
I think the key question is whether the paper described in this article proves (1) or (2). From the discussion, it sounds like it proves (2), which is the stronger result.
log p(y=1 | x; beta) = beta * x - log Z(x; beta)
where
Z(x) = p(y=0 | x; beta) + p(y=1 | x; beta)
Thus, you can think of it as linear regression, but with an additional term log Z(x; beta) in the log likelihood.
The relevant metric is how many fewer people have caught it due to the lockdown, and assuming the numbers are accurate, it's pretty clear that the lockdown has substantially reduced the infection rate.
The simplest definition is: a finite decimal ak ... a1.b1 ... bh is defined to be a fraction and an infinite decimal is defined to be a limit. You'd still have to define what a limit is, but that is somewhat more intuitive.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nonstandard_calculus
It is based on the hyperreal numbers:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hyperreal_number
Practically speaking, I don't think it buys you anything over traditional calculus/analysis. It's just pointing out that there are alternative approaches to formalizing calculus.
https://statmodeling.stat.columbia.edu/2020/04/19/fatal-flaw...