1,656 karma · joined April 26, 2016
(I guess this would also apply to baking anyway.)
> ‘personal data’ means any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person (‘data subject’); an identifiable natural person is one who can be identified, directly or indirectly, in particular by reference to an identifier such as a name, an identification number, location data, an online identifier or to one or more factors specific to the physical, physiological, genetic, mental, economic, cultural or social identity of that natural person;
This is not out of step with reality nor a wrong assumption, it is simply a definition. It is motivated somewhat in the considerations of the GDPR.
> (26) The principles of data protection should apply to any information concerning an identified or identifiable natural person. Personal data which have undergone pseudonymisation, which could be attributed to a natural person by the use of additional information should be considered to be information on an identifiable natural person. To determine whether a natural person is identifiable, account should be taken of all the means reasonably likely to be used, such as singling out, either by the controller or by another person to identify the natural person directly or indirectly. To ascertain whether means are reasonably likely to be used to identify the natural person, account should be taken of all objective factors, such as the costs of and the amount of time required for identification, taking into consideration the available technology at the time of the processing and technological developments. The principles of data protection should therefore not apply to anonymous information, namely information which does not relate to an identified or identifiable natural person or to personal data rendered anonymous in such a manner that the data subject is not or no longer identifiable. This Regulation does not therefore concern the processing of such anonymous information, including for statistical or research purposes.
> (30) Natural persons may be associated with online identifiers provided by their devices, applications, tools and protocols, such as internet protocol addresses, cookie identifiers or other identifiers such as radio frequency identification tags. This may leave traces which, in particular when combined with unique identifiers and other information received by the servers, may be used to create profiles of the natural persons and identify them.
I'd wager that > 90% of moderators use third party apps, and they indirectly do make Reddit a lot of money. Without the moderators the entire site goes to shit.
More context: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=35583089
Maybe you could obfuscate software eventually, but we don't have practical efficiency even for tiny circuits. It's a bit like saying how fully homomorphic encryption allows you to securely run "software" on someone else's computer: theoretically maybe yes, but in practice it's used within software to run very specific computations.
Why would pricing the rent lower than the insane market prices cause bankruptcy for the owner?
Suppose you have multiple organizations that want to run some computation on their joint data, without revealing their data to each other. Each organization has their own machine that runs the MPC protocol. They have full control over their machine, and can inspect that the code correctly executes the protocol. Only once all organizations agree, will the computation take place, and within the security model of the protocol, it is guaranteed that only the correct computation output is revealed to the designated parties.
See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Secure_multi-party_computation
This might be true. On the other hand, I know that especially in fatal accidents, forensic analysis is sometimes able to tell whether the driver was speeding or was exhibiting other kinds of illegal/reckless behavior, in which case prosecution for 3rd degree murder (dood door schuld) is usually pursued.
I think a fixed-time vesting over 4 years is pretty standard, starting from the moment of employment, with no additional terms. If they're not happy with your performance, they should fire you, rather than withholding shares. I think 0.6% of shares is quite low, and the tax reasons sound dubious.
> How do I make sure what I vest, I really do vest and they don't change the rules again?
The position of non-voting shares is quite precarious I think, because a voting majority in the company can simply dilute shares and render the STAK-owned shares less valuable. Besides that: just read the contracts, the STAK bylaws, and once you sign the certificate holder agreement it's relatively ironclad. I'd recommend getting some legal advice.
https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/covid-19-vaccinat...
Edit: changed my ambiguous wording