"Money creation in the modern economy" from the Bank of England is worth a read - it explains why this isn't the case.
https://www.bankofengland.co.uk/quarterly-bulletin/2014/q1/m...
I guess a way to ask the question would be: if i were to liquidate all assets of a bank and call in every loan, would that be >= all customer deposits?
If I deposit $5 in my bank account, and then the bank keeps $1 in reserve and lends out $4, then they just added $4 to the money supply. I can withdraw my $5, and the loan-taker can withdraw their $4. This is possible because there’s a reserve pool of money which is not loaned out, and because people tend to just leave the money in their account.
At least that’s my understanding. Happy to be corrected