The sale of indulgences was a charitable donation done to mitigate the penalties of Purgatory.
Abuses were committed, but the telling of the protestants is quite fantastic. It was not, for example, a get-of-Hell sale
27 karma · joined October 12, 2024
The sale of indulgences was a charitable donation done to mitigate the penalties of Purgatory.
Abuses were committed, but the telling of the protestants is quite fantastic. It was not, for example, a get-of-Hell sale
The very concert of fueros formalizes this starting 1000 years ago. Those fueros still constitute the basis of the Spanish Constitution today (i.e. autonomous regions).
That the Spanish central state never felt the need to genocide Spain's constituent tribes like Paris did in France should be considered a good thing! Most Euskera speakers are on the Spanish side of the Pyrenees!
EDIT: the Asturians, from whom the seed of the reconquista came from, are ethnic celts and play a local variation of bag pipes.
Spain was unified province of Rome, and then its own country under the Visigoths for a total of 800 years. That's 800 years of unified governance. Spain had a common language (vulgate) and religion (various sects of christianity).
We have the pre-Islamic negotiations on issues of Faith. The Visigoths were Arians but slowly became Catholics. We have the history of countless councils.
Spain wasn't, but for some savages, empty land for the muslim armies to take. And it's ridiculous to think it could have been - where did the people to fight the most powerful army of the day come from? Asturias is just not that big.
Proof is in the pudding where is the percentage of natives highest? Where Spaniards colonized (Mexico, Bolivia, Peru)? Or the Brits (Virginia, Connecticut, all of Canada except Quebec)?
(Disclaimer, I'm... I don't know what I am)
Thank goodness for tail call optimization.